The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) | Paper- 2 | MCQs

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1. Section 5(4) provides that attachment shall not prevent—

a. Sale of property

b. Enjoyment of immovable property by person interested

c. Transfer of property

d. Confiscation

2. The term “person interested” under the Explanation to Section 5(4) includes—

a. Only owner

b. Only tenant

c. All persons claiming or entitled to claim any interest in the property

d. Only accused

3. Under Section 5(5), the Director must file a complaint before the Adjudicating Authority within—

a. Fifteen days

b. Thirty days

c. Sixty days

d. Ninety days

4. The complaint under Section 5(5) must state—

a. Facts of provisional attachment

b. Grounds of arrest

c. Details of scheduled offence only

d. Evidence of guilt

5. Provisional attachment under Section 5 is—

a. Final confiscation

b. Temporary in nature

c. Civil attachment

d. Punitive action

6. Section 5 primarily aims to—

a. Punish the offender

b. Determine guilt

c. Conduct trial

d. Secure proceeds of crime from being dissipated

7. Section 6 of the PMLA, 2002 deals with—

a. Adjudicating Authorities

b. Special Courts

c. Appellate Tribunal

d. Investigation agency

8. Who appoints the Adjudicating Authority under Section 6(1)?

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court

c. Appellate Tribunal

d. Central Government

9. The appointment of the Adjudicating Authority under Section 6(1) is made by—

a. Order

b. Resolution

c. Notification

d. Ordinance

10. An Adjudicating Authority under Section 6(2) shall consist of—

a. One Chairperson only

b. Two Members only

c. One Chairperson and two other Members

d. One Chairperson and four Members

11. As per the proviso to Section 6(2), Members shall have experience in—

a. Law only

b. Law and finance only

c. Law, administration, finance or accountancy

d. Judiciary only

12. How many Members of the Adjudicating Authority must have experience as specified in the proviso to Section 6(2)?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. All Members

13. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Member in the field of law unless he—

a. Is an advocate for five years

b. Is qualified for appointment as District Judge

c. Is a retired High Court Judge

d. Has practiced criminal law

14. Alternatively, a person in the field of law is qualified if he—

a. Has been a Sessions Judge

b. Has been a Judicial Magistrate

c. Has been a Member of Indian Legal Service holding Grade I post

d. Has been a Public Prosecutor

15. For appointment as Member in finance, accountancy or administration, a person must—

a. Be a Chartered Accountant only

b. Be a retired IAS officer

c. Possess qualifications as may be prescribed

d. Have ten years’ experience

16. Who appoints a Member to be the Chairperson of the Adjudicating Authority?

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court

c. Central Government

d. Appellate Tribunal

17. Under Section 6(5)(a), the jurisdiction of the Adjudicating Authority may be exercised by—

a. Single Member only

b. Chairperson alone

c. Benches

d. Special Courts

18. A Bench of the Adjudicating Authority may consist of—

a. Chairperson only

b. One or two Members

c. Two Members only

d. Three Members only

19. Who constitutes the Benches of the Adjudicating Authority?

a. Central Government

b. Supreme Court

c. Chairperson of the Adjudicating Authority

d. Appellate Tribunal

20. Ordinarily, the Benches of the Adjudicating Authority shall sit at—

a. Mumbai only

b. New Delhi only

c. New Delhi and other notified places

d. Any State capital

21. Places other than New Delhi for sitting of Benches are specified by—

a. Chairperson alone

b. Central Government in consultation with Chairperson

c. Appellate Tribunal

d. Supreme Court

22. The areas of jurisdiction of each Bench are specified by—

a. Chairperson

b. Adjudicating Authority

c. Central Government by notification

d. High Court

23. Under Section 6(6), the Chairperson has power to—

a. Remove a Member

b. Appoint Members

c. Transfer a Member from one Bench to another

d. Suspend proceedings

24. If a case appears to require hearing by a two-Member Bench, it may be transferred by—

a. Any Member

b. Central Government

c. Chairperson

d. Appellate Tribunal

25. The tenure of the Chairperson or Member under Section 6(8) is—

a. Three years

b. Five years

c. Six years

d. Till superannuation

26. No Chairperson or Member shall hold office after attaining the age of—

a. Sixty years

b. Sixty-two years

c. Seventy years

d. Sixty-five years

27. Salary, allowances and service conditions of Members are—

a. Prescribed by rules

b. Fixed by the Chairperson

c. Fixed by Parliament

d. Decided by High Court

28. After appointment, service conditions of a Member—

a. May be varied anytime

b. Shall not be varied to his disadvantage

c. May be varied to his disadvantage

d. Are temporary

29. If a vacancy occurs due to reasons other than temporary absence, it shall be filled by—

a. Chairperson

b. Appellate Tribunal

c. Senior-most Member

d. Central Government

30. Proceedings before the Adjudicating Authority after filling a vacancy—

a. Must start afresh

b. May continue from the stage already reached

c. Shall abate

d. Shall be transferred to High Court

31. A Chairperson or Member may resign by giving—

a. Oral intimation

b. Notice to Chairperson

c. Written notice to Central Government

d. Application to Appellate Tribunal

32. After resignation, the Chairperson or Member shall ordinarily continue in office for—

a. One month

b. Two months

c. Three months

d. Six months

33. Removal of the Chairperson or Member can be made only by—

a. Supreme Court

b. High Court

c. Central Government after opportunity of hearing

d. Appellate Tribunal

34. When the office of Chairperson falls vacant due to death or resignation, who acts as Chairperson?

a. Any Member nominated by Central Government

b. Junior-most Member

c. Senior-most Member

d. Registrar

35. When the Chairperson is unable to discharge functions due to absence or illness, the functions are discharged by—

a. Central Government nominee

b. Senior-most Member

c. Any available Member

d. Appellate Tribunal

36. The Adjudicating Authority under Section 6(15)—

a. Is bound by CPC, 1908

b. Is bound by CrPC

c. Is not bound by CPC but guided by principles of natural justice

d. Is bound by Evidence Act

37. Subject to the Act, the Adjudicating Authority has power to—

a. Frame criminal procedure

b. Regulate its own procedure

c. Punish for contempt

d. Review High Court orders

38. Section 7 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 deals with—

a. Appointment of Members

b. Powers of Chairperson

c. Staff of Adjudicating Authorities

d. Procedure of adjudication

39. Under Section 7(1), who shall provide officers and employees to the Adjudicating Authority?

a. Chairperson of the Authority

b. Adjudicating Authority itself

c. Central Government

d. Appellate Tribunal

40. The officers and employees are provided to the Adjudicating Authority—

a. As prescribed by rules

b. As recommended by Chairperson

c. As the Central Government may think fit

d. As directed by Supreme Court

41. Section 7(1) uses which expression regarding provision of staff?

a. Shall appoint

b. May appoint

c. Shall provide

d. May recommend

42. The officers and employees of the Adjudicating Authority discharge their functions under—

a. Direct control of Central Government

b. Superintendence of Appellate Tribunal

c. General superintendence of the Chairperson

d. Supervision of Special Court

43. Section 7(2) places officers and employees under the superintendence of—

a. Central Government

b. Chairperson of the Adjudicating Authority

c. Senior-most Member

d. Registrar

44. The superintendence exercised by the Chairperson under Section 7(2) is—

a. Administrative only

b. Judicial only

c. General superintendence

d. Appellate control

45. Salaries and allowances of officers and employees of the Adjudicating Authority shall be—

a. Such as may be prescribed

b. Fixed by Chairperson

c. Fixed by Central Government order

d. Same as Members

46. Apart from salaries and allowances, Section 7(3) also covers—

a. Pension only

b. Leave only

c. Other conditions of service

d. Retirement age

47. Who prescribes the salaries, allowances and service conditions under Section 7(3)?

a. Parliament

b. Central Government through rules

c. Adjudicating Authority

d. Appellate Tribunal

48. Section 7 primarily deals with—

a. Judicial powers

b. Composition of Authority

c. Administrative support staff

d. Appeals

49. Officers and employees provided under Section 7 work—

a. Independently

b. Under Members collectively

c. Under general superintendence of Chairperson

d. Under direct control of courts

50. Section 7 does NOT deal with—

a. Appointment of staff

b. Control over staff

c. Salary and service conditions

d. Removal of Chairperson

51. Which authority ensures administrative functioning of the Adjudicating Authority under Section 7?

a. Special Court

b. Appellate Tribunal

c. Central Government and Chairperson

d. Enforcement Directorate

52. Section 7 is best described as a provision relating to—

a. Administrative framework

b. Substantive offence

c. Punishment

d. Trial procedure

53. Section 8 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 relates to—

a. Investigation

b. Attachment

c. Adjudication

d. Appeals

54. Proceedings under Section 8(1) commence on receipt of—

a. Charge sheet

b. Police report

c. Order of Special Court

d. Complaint under Section 5(5) or applications under Section 17(4) or Section 18(10)

55. The Adjudicating Authority may issue notice under Section 8(1) if it has reason to believe that—

a. Any offence has been registered

b. Any person has committed an offence under Section 3 or is in possession of proceeds of crime

c. Property is under dispute

d. Accused has absconded

56. Minimum period of notice to be served under Section 8(1) is—

a. Fifteen days

b. Twenty days

c. Thirty days

d. Sixty days

57. Notice under Section 8(1) calls upon the person to—

a. Admit guilt

b. Deposit penalty

c. Indicate sources of income, earnings or assets and show cause

d. Appear before Special Court

58. The notice under Section 8(1) relates to property which is—

a. Seized under CrPC

b. Attached under Section 5 or seized/frozen under Sections 17 or 18

c. Subject matter of civil suit

d. In possession of police

59. If property is held by a person on behalf of another, the notice shall also be served on—

a. Director

b. Chairperson

c. Such other person

d. Investigating officer

60. Where property is held jointly by more than one person, notice shall be served—

a. Only on main holder

b. Only on accused

c. On all persons holding such property

d. At discretion of Authority

61. Before passing order under Section 8(2), the Adjudicating Authority shall consider—

a. Reply to notice, hearing and relevant material

b. Police opinion only

c. Statement under CrPC

d. Confession only

62. Hearing under Section 8(2) is given to—

a. Only aggrieved person

b. Only Director

c. Aggrieved person and Director or authorised officer

d. Public Prosecutor only

63. Under Section 8(2), the Adjudicating Authority records a finding whether—

a. Accused is guilty

b. Property is benami

c. Offence is compoundable

d. Property is involved in money-laundering

64. If a third person claims the property, such person shall—

a. Be ignored

b. File civil suit

c. Be given opportunity of being heard

d. Approach High Court

65. On deciding that property is involved in money-laundering, the Adjudicating Authority shall—

a. Release property

b. Impose fine

c. Refer matter to police

d. Confirm attachment or retention/freezing by written order

66. After confirmation, attachment or freezing shall continue during investigation for a period not exceeding—

a. 365 days

b. 180 days

c. 300 days

d. Till trial ends

67. The period during which investigation is stayed by a court shall—

a. Be included in 365 days

b. Be excluded from computation

c. Extend limitation automatically

d. Cancel attachment

68. Attachment becomes final after—

a. Filing of complaint

b. Conviction of accused

c. Order of confiscation by Special Court

d. Framing of charge

69. After confirmation of attachment, who shall take possession of the property?

a. Chairperson

b. Director or authorised officer

c. Special Court

d. District Magistrate

70. If taking possession of frozen property is not practicable—

a. Attachment lapses

b. Property is released

c. Fresh notice is issued

d. Order of confiscation has same effect as possession

71. When Special Court finds that money-laundering offence has been committed, it shall order—

a. Return of property

b. Auction of property

c. Confiscation to Central Government

d. Compounding of offence

72. If Special Court finds that no offence of money-laundering has taken place, it shall—

a. Continue attachment

b. Confiscate property

c. Release property to entitled person

d. Refer matter back

73. Section 8(7) applies when trial—

a. Ends in conviction

b. Ends in acquittal

c. Cannot be conducted or concluded

d. Is stayed permanently

74. Application under Section 8(7) may be moved by—

a. Public Prosecutor only

b. Director or claimant of property

c. Police officer

d. Chairperson

75. After confiscation, the Special Court may direct restoration of property to—

a. Accused

b. Informant

c. Claimant with legitimate interest

d. State Government

76. Restoration under Section 8(8) requires that the claimant—

a. Is relative of accused

b. Acted in good faith and is not involved in offence

c. Filed FIR

d. Proved ownership only

77. The Special Court may consider restoration claim—

a. Only after trial

b. Only after appeal

c. Even during trial

d. Only after conviction

78. Section 9 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 deals with—

a. Attachment of property

b. Vesting of property in Central Government

c. Restoration of property

d. Appeals

79. Property vests in the Central Government under Section 9 when—

a. Provisional attachment is made

b. Complaint is filed

c. Order of confiscation is made

d. Charge sheet is filed

80. Confiscation order referred to in Section 9 may be passed under—

a. Section 5 only

b. Section 7 only

c. Section 8(5) or 8(7) or Section 58B or Section 60(2A)

d. Section 17 only

81. On confiscation, all rights and title in the property shall vest—

a. Temporarily in Government

b. In the Special Court

c. Absolutely in the Central Government

d. In the State Government

82. Vesting of property under Section 9 is—

a. Subject to encumbrances

b. Free from all encumbrances

c. Subject to lease rights

d. Subject to civil court orders

83. The expression “free from all encumbrances” means—

a. Property remains mortgaged

b. Existing charges continue

c. No encumbrance survives

d. Only government dues survive

84. The first proviso to Section 9 applies when—

a. Property is attached

b. Property is provisionally seized

c. Encumbrance or lease-hold interest is created to defeat the Act

d. Property is restored

85. Before declaring an encumbrance or lease-hold interest void, the authority must—

a. Seek police opinion

b. Take approval of Central Government

c. Give opportunity of being heard

d. Issue public notice

86. Opportunity of hearing under the proviso to Section 9 is given to—

a. Accused only

b. Director only

c. Any other person interested in the property

d. Public Prosecutor only

87. Property referred to in the proviso may be—

a. Only attached under Chapter III

b. Only seized under CrPC

c. Attached under this Chapter or seized/frozen under Chapter V

d. Only frozen under FEMA

88. If an encumbrance is found to be created to defeat the provisions of the Act, it may be declared—

a. Irregular

b. Void

c. Voidable

d. Suspended

89. After declaring the encumbrance void, the property shall vest in the Central Government—

a. Subject to lease rights

b. With compensation

c. Free from such encumbrance or lease-hold interest

d. Temporarily

90. The power to declare encumbrance void under Section 9 is vested in—

a. Special Court only

b. Adjudicating Authority only

c. Either Special Court or Adjudicating Authority

d. High Court only

91. The second proviso to Section 9 clarifies that—

a. Encumbrances are automatically cancelled

b. Civil liability is extinguished

c. Criminal proceedings abate

d. Liability of any person is not discharged

92. Under the second proviso, liability in respect of encumbrance may be enforced by—

a. Criminal complaint

b. Writ petition

c. Suit for damages

d. Arbitration

93. Section 9 operates only after—

a. Registration of ECIR

b. Provisional attachment

c. Final confiscation order

d. Filing of appeal

94. Vesting under Section 9 is—

a. Conditional

b. Temporary

c. Absolute

d. Subject to appeal

95. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Property vests in State Government

b. Property vests absolutely in Central Government

c. Property vests with encumbrances intact

d. Property is returned to accused

96. Lease-hold interest created to defeat the Act can be—

a. Declared void

b. Regularised

c. Continued till expiry

d. Converted into freehold

97. Section 9 ensures that confiscated property—

a. Vests in Central Government without encumbrances

b. Remains under court custody

c. Is sold immediately

d. Is auctioned compulsorily

98. Encumbrance created bona fide—

a. Is automatically void

b. Can be declared void without hearing

c. Requires opinion that it was created to defeat the Act

d. Is ignored by law

99. The phrase “shall vest absolutely” indicates—

a. Discretionary vesting

b. Mandatory vesting

c. Temporary vesting

d. Conditional vesting

100. Section 9 applies to property of—

a. Director

b. Any person

c. Public servant only

d. Banking companies

101. Which authority decides whether an encumbrance was created to defeat the Act?

a. Investigating Officer

b. Central Government

c. Police Officer

d. Special Court or Adjudicating Authority

102. The objective of Section 9 is primarily to—

a. Punish accused

b. Protect third-party interests

c. Ensure clean vesting of confiscated property in Government

d. Regulate investigation

103. Section 10 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 deals with—

a. Management of confiscated property

b. Attachment of property

c. Adjudication

d. Appeal against confiscation

104. Under Section 10(1), who appoints the Administrator for managing confiscated property?

a. Adjudicating Authority

b. Special Court

c. Central Government

d. Enforcement Directorate

105. The appointment of the Administrator under Section 10(1) is made by—

a. Notification in Parliament

b. Order published in the Official Gazette

c. Circular of ED

d. Rules framed under the Act

106. The officers appointed as Administrator must not be below the rank of—

a. Deputy Secretary

b. Director

c. Additional Secretary

d. Joint Secretary to the Government of India

107. The Central Government may appoint—

a. Only one Administrator

b. Only two Administrators

c. As many officers as it thinks fit

d. One Administrator per State

108. The Administrator is appointed to perform the functions of—

a. Administrator

b. Investigating Officer

c. Adjudicating Authority

d. Receiver

109. Under Section 10(2), the Administrator shall receive and manage property in relation to which—

a. Provisional attachment is made

b. Confiscation order is made

c. ECIR is registered

d. Charge sheet is filed

110. Orders referred to in Section 10(2) include orders passed under—

a. Section 5 only

b. Section 7 only

c. Section 8(5), 8(6), 8(7), Section 58B or Section 60(2A)

d. Section 17 only

111. The manner in which the Administrator shall manage the property is—

a. As per judicial directions

b. As may be prescribed

c. As per Code of Civil Procedure

d. At his discretion

112. Management of confiscated property by the Administrator is subject to—

a. Judicial approval

b. Conditions as may be prescribed

c. Parliamentary control

d. State Government directions

113. Section 10(3) empowers the Administrator to—

a. Dispose of property

b. Attach property

c. Confiscate property

d. Restore property

114. Disposal of property under Section 10(3) is done—

a. On recommendation of ED

b. As per decision of Adjudicating Authority

c. As per court decree

d. As the Central Government may direct

115. The property disposed of under Section 10(3) must be—

a. Attached property

b. Seized property

c. Property vested in Central Government under Section 9

d. Frozen property

116. Section 10 applies to property—

a. After vesting in Central Government

b. Before adjudication

c. After provisional attachment

d. During investigation

117. The role of the Administrator under Section 10 is primarily—

a. Judicial

b. Investigative

c. Administrative and managerial

d. Appellate

118. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Administrator manages confiscated property

b. Administrator is appointed by Special Court

c. Administrator can be below Joint Secretary rank

d. Administrator confirms attachment

119. Section 10 ensures—

a. Fair trial

b. Proper investigation

c. Effective management of confiscated assets

d. Speedy appeal

120. The words “shall receive and manage” in Section 10(2) indicate—

a. Discretionary power

b. Mandatory duty

c. Temporary arrangement

d. Advisory role

121. Administrator under PMLA is appointed for property confiscated under—

a. Chapter III

b. Chapter IV

c. Chapter VI

d. This Chapter

122. Section 10 supplements which section directly?

a. Section 5

b. Section 9

c. Section 8

d. Section 11

123. Disposal of confiscated property under Section 10(3) is—

a. As directed by Central Government

b. Automatic

c. Judicially supervised

d. At Administrator’s discretion alone

124. The Administrator acts—

a. Independently of Government

b. Under directions of Central Government

c. Under High Court supervision

d. Under Adjudicating Authority only

125. Section 10 does NOT deal with—

a. Appointment of Administrator

b. Management of confiscated property

c. Disposal of confiscated property

d. Appeal against confiscation

126. The objective of Section 10 is to—

a. Punish the offender

b. Manage and dispose confiscated assets

c. Secure evidence

d. Decide guilt

127. Section 10 comes into operation—

a. Before attachment

b. During investigation

c. After confiscation and vesting

d. At trial stage

128. Section 11 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 deals with—

a. Adjudication of attachment

b. Powers of Special Court

c. Power regarding summons, production of documents and evidence

d. Management of confiscated property

129. Under Section 11(1), the Adjudicating Authority has the same powers as—

a. Criminal Court under CrPC

b. High Court under Constitution

c. Sessions Court

d. Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

130. The civil court powers under Section 11(1) are exercisable—

a. While trying a suit

b. During trial only

c. During appeal

d. Only at investigation stage

131. Discovery and inspection fall under—

a. Section 10

b. Section 11(1)(a)

c. Section 11(2)

d. Section 12

132. Enforcing attendance of any person is covered under—

a. Section 11(1)(b)

b. Section 11(1)(c)

c. Section 11(2)

d. Section 11(3)

133. Section 11 empowers the Adjudicating Authority to enforce attendance of—

a. Accused only

b. Public servants only

c. Any person including officers of banking companies

d. Police officers only

134. Officers whose attendance can be enforced include officers of—

a. Courts only

b. Banking companies, financial institutions or companies

c. NGOs only

d. Foreign embassies

135. Examination of a person under Section 11(1)(b) may be done—

a. Without oath

b. Only in writing

c. On oath

d. Through police

136. Compelling the production of records is provided under—

a. Section 11(1)(a)

b. Section 11(1)(c)

c. Section 11(2)

d. Section 11(3)

137. Receiving evidence on affidavits is authorised under—

a. Section 11(1)(d)

b. Section 11(1)(e)

c. Section 11(2)

d. Section 12

138. Issuing commissions for examination of witnesses and documents falls under—

a. Section 11(1)(e)

b. Section 11(1)(f)

c. Section 11(2)

d. Section 10

139. Clause (f) of Section 11(1) relates to—

a. Criminal trial

b. Punishment

c. Confiscation

d. Any other matter which may be prescribed

140. Persons summoned under Section 11(2) are bound to—

a. Appear only through advocate

b. Attend in person or through authorised agents

c. Appear only in writing

d. Appear only if accused

141. Attendance of summoned persons shall be—

a. As directed by the Adjudicating Authority

b. Optional

c. Discretionary

d. As per CrPC only

142. A person summoned under Section 11(2) is bound to—

a. Remain silent

b. State the truth

c. Give affidavit only

d. Depose only if accused

143. Section 11(2) requires summoned persons to produce—

a. Such documents as may be required

b. Only original documents

c. Only certified copies

d. Only bank records

144. Proceedings under Section 11 are deemed to be—

a. Administrative proceedings

b. Quasi-judicial proceedings

c. Judicial proceedings

d. Investigative proceedings

145. Judicial proceedings under Section 11 are deemed so for the purposes of—

a. Section 24 IPC

b. Section 193 and Section 228 IPC

c. Section 197 IPC

d. Section 300 CrPC

146. Section 193 IPC relates to—

a. False evidence

b. Disobedience of order

c. Contempt of court

d. Criminal conspiracy

147. Section 228 IPC deals with—

a. Forgery

b. Insult or interruption to public servant sitting in judicial proceeding

c. Criminal intimidation

d. Cheating

148. The effect of Section 11(3) is that false evidence before Adjudicating Authority—

a. Has no consequence

b. Is civil liability only

c. Is ignored

d. Attracts IPC provisions

149. Powers under Section 11 are exercised by—

a. Special Court

b. Enforcement Directorate

c. Adjudicating Authority

d. Appellate Tribunal

150. Section 11 strengthens proceedings by—

a. Limiting evidence

b. Granting civil-court-like powers

c. Removing oath requirement

d. Restricting summons

151. Which of the following is NOT expressly mentioned in Section 11(1)?

a. Arrest of accused

b. Discovery and inspection

c. Examination on oath

d. Compelling production of records

152. Section 11 ensures that proceedings before the Adjudicating Authority are—

a. Informal

b. Non-binding

c. Legally enforceable

d. Advisory

153. Section 11A of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 deals with—

a. Summons and evidence

b. Attachment of property

c. Adjudication

d. Verification of identity by reporting entity

154. Under Section 11A(1), every reporting entity shall verify the identity of—

a. Only its clients

b. Only beneficial owners

c. Only account holders

d. Both clients and beneficial owners

155. Aadhaar authentication under Section 11A(1)(a) is applicable where the reporting entity is—

a. A financial institution

b. A banking company

c. A non-banking company

d. Any reporting entity

156. Offline verification under Aadhaar is provided under—

a. Section 11A(1)(a)

b. Section 11A(1)(b)

c. Section 11A(2)

d. Section 11A(3)

157. Verification of identity may be done using passport issued under—

a. Citizenship Act, 1955

b. Passport Rules, 1980

c. Section 4 of the Passports Act, 1967

d. Foreigners Act, 1946

158. Which of the following is an accepted mode of identification under Section 11A(1)?

a. Driving licence only

b. PAN card only

c. Any officially valid document notified by Central Government

d. Voter ID only

159. The power to notify additional modes of identification under Section 11A(1)(d) vests in—

a. RBI

b. UIDAI

c. Central Government

d. Adjudicating Authority

160. The first proviso to Section 11A(1) empowers the Central Government to permit Aadhaar authentication by—

a. Reporting entities other than banking companies

b. Any reporting entity

c. Only banking companies

d. Only financial institutions

161. Such permission under the first proviso can be granted only if the reporting entity—

a. Is government owned

b. Follows RBI guidelines

c. Complies with standards of privacy and security under the Aadhaar Act

d. Has court approval

162. No notification under the first proviso shall be issued without consultation with—

a. Supreme Court

b. Enforcement Directorate

c. UIDAI and appropriate regulator

d. Parliament

163. UIDAI referred to in Section 11A is established under—

a. Section 2 of Aadhaar Act

b. Section 11 of Aadhaar Act

c. Section 4 of Aadhaar Act

d. Section 15 of Aadhaar Act

164. If a reporting entity performs Aadhaar authentication, it shall also make available—

a. Other modes under clauses (b), (c) and (d)

b. Only offline Aadhaar verification

c. Only passport verification

d. Only PAN verification

165. Section 11A(2) ensures that Aadhaar authentication—

a. Is compulsory

b. Is exclusive

c. Overrides other laws

d. Is not the only mode available

166. The choice of mode of identification under Section 11A is—

a. Mandatory for Aadhaar

b. At the discretion of reporting entity

c. Voluntary for the client or beneficial owner

d. Determined by Central Government

167. No client shall be denied services for—

a. Not having an Aadhaar number

b. Not submitting passport

c. Not submitting PAN

d. Not submitting address proof

168. Section 11A(3) embodies the principle of—

a. Mandatory identification

b. Voluntary Aadhaar usage

c. Compulsory biometric capture

d. Exclusive Aadhaar regime

169. Under Section 11A(4), when Aadhaar authentication or offline verification is used, which information shall NOT be stored?

a. Name and address

b. Passport details

c. PAN details

d. Core biometric information and Aadhaar number

170. The prohibition on storing Aadhaar number applies when verification is done under—

a. Clause (c) only

b. Clause (d) only

c. Clause (a) or clause (b)

d. All clauses

171. Section 11A(5) empowers the Central Government to—

a. Restrict Aadhaar usage

b. Notify additional safeguards

c. Prohibit identity verification

d. Remove reporting entities

172. Additional safeguards under Section 11A(5) relate to—

a. Punishment

b. Attachment

c. Verification of identity

d. Adjudication

173. The Explanation to Section 11A defines “Aadhaar number” with reference to—

a. PMLA

b. CrPC

c. RBI Act

d. Aadhaar Act, 2016

174. “Core biometric information” has the meaning assigned under—

a. Section 2(j) of Aadhaar Act

b. Section 11 of Aadhaar Act

c. Section 4 of PMLA

d. Section 12 of PMLA

175. Section 11A balances—

a. Investigation and prosecution

b. Privacy and identity verification

c. Punishment and confiscation

d. Trial and appeal

176. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Aadhaar is compulsory for all clients

b. Aadhaar number can be stored

c. Services cannot be denied for lack of Aadhaar

d. Only banking companies are reporting entities

177. The primary objective of Section 11A is to—

a. Punish money laundering

b. Confiscate property

c. Ensure lawful and privacy-compliant identity verification

d. Speed up trial

178. Section 12 of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 relates to—

a. Verification of identity

b. Maintenance of records by reporting entity

c. Adjudication

d. Summons and evidence

179. Under Section 12(1), which entities are required to maintain records?

a. Every reporting entity

b. Only banking companies

c. Only financial institutions

d. Only non-banking companies

180. Section 12(1)(a) requires reporting entities to maintain—

a. Record of suspicious transactions only

b. Record of foreign transactions only

c. Record of high-value transactions only

d. Record of all transactions

181. The record of transactions must be maintained in such a manner as to—

a. Enable audit only

b. Enable reconstruction of individual transactions

c. Enable prosecution

d. Enable attachment of property

182. Information relating to which transactions must be furnished to the Director?

a. Executed transactions only

b. Attempted transactions only

c. Both attempted and executed transactions

d. Suspicious transactions only

183. Information relating to transactions shall be furnished to—

a. Adjudicating Authority

b. Director

c. Appellate Tribunal

d. Special Court

184. Information under Section 12(1)(b) must be furnished—

a. Immediately

b. Within such time as may be prescribed

c. Annually

d. At the discretion of reporting entity

185. The nature and value of transactions to be reported shall be—

a. As may be prescribed

b. Fixed in the Act

c. Decided by courts

d. Decided by reporting entity

186. Section 12(1)(e) requires maintenance of records of—

a. Only identity documents

b. Only account files

c. Only correspondence

d. Identity documents, account files and business correspondence

187. Records under Section 12(1)(e) relate to—

a. Clients and beneficial owners

b. Employees

c. Directors

d. Investigating officers

188. Section 12(2) provides that information maintained or furnished shall be—

a. Public information

b. Confidential

c. Disclosed to all authorities

d. Filed in court

189. Confidentiality under Section 12(2) is subject to—

a. Any law for the time being in force

b. RBI directions only

c. Orders of Director only

d. Consent of client only

190. Records referred to in Section 12(1)(a) must be maintained for—

a. Three years

b. Five years from date of transaction

c. Five years from account closure

d. Ten years

191. The five-year period under Section 12(3) is calculated from—

a. Date of attachment

b. Date of filing complaint

c. Date of transaction

d. Date of audit

192. Records under Section 12(1)(e) shall be maintained for five years—

a. From date of transaction

b. From date of attachment

c. From date of verification

d. After business relationship ends or account closes

193. The relevant date under Section 12(4) is—

a. Earlier of two events

b. Later of two events

c. Date of attachment

d. Date of reporting

194. The two events referred to in Section 12(4) are—

a. End of business relationship or account closure

b. Attachment and confiscation

c. Transaction and reporting

d. Verification and audit

195. Power to exempt reporting entities under Section 12(5) vests in—

a. Central Government

b. Director

c. Adjudicating Authority

d. RBI

196. Exemption under Section 12(5) may be granted—

a. By circular

b. By notification

c. By executive order

d. By court order

197. Exemption under Section 12(5) may apply to—

a. One individual only

b. Any reporting entity or class of reporting entities

c. Accused persons

d. Only banking companies

198. Section 12 applies to records relating to—

a. Investigation only

b. Trial only

c. Appeals

d. Transactions and client identity

199. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under Section 12(1)?

a. Maintaining transaction records

b. Furnishing information to Director

c. Maintaining identity documents

d. Verifying Aadhaar biometrics

200. Section 12 primarily imposes obligations on—

a. Courts

b. Reporting entities

c. Enforcement Directorate

d. Police authorities

201. The confidentiality obligation under Section 12(2) applies to—

a. Only identity records

b. Only transaction records

c. Only suspicious transaction reports

d. All information maintained, furnished or verified

202. The objective of Section 12 is to—

a. Punish reporting entities

b. Ensure transparency and audit

c. Create an effective reporting and record-keeping mechanism

d. Speed up adjudication

203. Section 12A of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 deals with—

a. Access to information

b. Verification of identity

c. Maintenance of records

d. Search and seizure

204. Under Section 12A(1), who is empowered to call for records and information?

a. Director

b. Adjudicating Authority

c. Appellate Tribunal

d. Special Court

205. The Director may call for records from—

a. Any person

b. Any accused

c. Any reporting entity

d. Any investigating officer

206. Records referred to in Section 12A(1) include records under—

a. Section 10 only

b. Section 11 only

c. Section 11A

d. Section 13 only

207. Apart from Section 11A, the Director may call for records under—

a. Section 12(1)

b. Section 12(2)

c. Section 12(3)

d. Section 12(5)

208. Section 12A(1) also refers to records maintained under—

a. Section 12A

b. Section 12AA(1)

c. Section 13

d. Section 14

209. The Director may call for which of the following in addition to statutory records?

a. Only transaction records

b. Any additional information considered necessary

c. Only identity records

d. Only confidential information

210. The additional information under Section 12A(1) must be necessary for—

a. Audit purposes

b. Purposes of this Act

c. Court proceedings

d. Banking regulation

211. Under Section 12A(2), who is required to furnish information to the Director?

a. Central Government

b. Enforcement Directorate

c. Reporting entity

d. Reserve Bank of India

212. Information under Section 12A(2) shall be furnished—

a. Immediately

b. Within a fixed statutory period

c. Within such time as the Director may specify

d. Annually

213. The manner of furnishing information under Section 12A(2) shall be—

a. As prescribed by rules

b. As specified by the Director

c. As directed by court

d. As decided by reporting entity

214. Section 12A(2) makes furnishing of information—

a. Mandatory

b. Optional

c. Voluntary

d. Conditional

215. Section 12A(3) relates to—

a. Penalty

b. Confidentiality of information

c. Time limitation

d. Appeal

216. Information sought by the Director under Section 12A(1) shall be—

a. Public information

b. Disclosed to courts only

c. Kept confidential

d. Published in reports

217. Confidentiality under Section 12A(3) is subject to—

a. RBI directions

b. Consent of reporting entity

c. Any law for the time being in force

d. Orders of Director only

218. Which of the following best describes the power under Section 12A(1)?

a. Power to punish

b. Power to seek access to records and information

c. Power to adjudicate

d. Power to confiscate property

219. Section 12A strengthens which mechanism under the PMLA?

a. Adjudication mechanism

b. Reporting and compliance mechanism

c. Appellate mechanism

d. Trial mechanism

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